-What about Romeo and Juliet is so conducive to music?

-How do the three versions differ and why? (Time period? Personal life? Audience?)

-Why do the composers choose to stray from Shakespeare's text? (This is more evident when examining the full musical pieces.)

-Which version is the best and why?

-Originally, Prokofiev's ballet had a happy ending because he thought dead people couldn't dance. He changed his mind, but how would this have changed the audience's emotional response?

-Would any of the musical adaptations of Romeo and Juliet be able to stand on their own without the association with Shakespeare?

-Even though Prokofiev was composing about a century after Berlioz, both mixed certain elements in their music that was innovative for their times. Did Prokofiev see the same thing in Shakespeare's plays as Berlioz did?

-Berlioz and other Romantics were influenced by the Napoleonic Wars, and Prokofiev may have come under censure because his music was too "democratic." How significant is politics to artistic evolution and inspiration? How was Shakespeare influenced by politics?